dlige
dlige t1_jegit68 wrote
Reply to comment by amandack in ELI5: If benzodiazepines are CNS depressants, why is it so hard to die from a overdose of them alone? by psychrolute
Eugh I hate reddit for doing what I'm about to do, but I always find this distinction interesting.
Strictly it's 50% of the population would die.
The reason why that is different than '50% chance of dying' is because 50%chance of death implies that everytime you take that dose you're flipping a coin. The reality is that if you tried it once and it didn't kill you, it would never kill you (ignoring the fact that this is certainly not true due to everything from the liver damage you would sustain to the fact you'd be aging as time went on). But if you were able to repeat the same experiment on yourself again and again after the first outcome where it didn't kill you, it is not 50% chance of death each time.
dlige t1_jegruad wrote
Reply to comment by Ishana92 in ELI5: If benzodiazepines are CNS depressants, why is it so hard to die from a overdose of them alone? by psychrolute
Yes, that's it!